Project Management Professional 2024 (PMBOK7) Practice Test

PMP-2024 Exam Format | Course Contents | Course Outline | Exam Syllabus | Exam Objectives

Exam: Project Management Professional
Number of Questions: The PMP exam consists of 180 multiple-choice questions. Out of these, 175 questions are
scored, while the remaining 5 questions are considered pretest or "trial" questions.

Time Allowed: The total time allotted for the PMP exam is 230 minutes (3 hours and 50 minutes). This includes the time for answering the questions as well as any breaks you may take during the exam.

Language: The PMP exam is available in multiple languages to cater to a global audience. As of 2021, the exam is offered in English, Arabic, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Italian, Japanese, Korean, Portuguese (Brazilian), Russian, and Spanish.

Passing Marks: The passing score for the PMP exam is determined by a combination of factors and is not based on a fixed percentage or number of correct answers. The exam is graded on a proficiency level scale, focusing on five domains of project management: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. The exact

The field of project management is constantly evolving, and staying up-to-date with the latest industry standards and practices is crucial for professionals in this domain. The Project Management Professional (PMP) certification, offered by the Project Management Institute (PMI), is a globally recognized credential that validates a project manager's expertise and proficiency. In 2024, PMI introduced the seventh edition of the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK7), bringing significant changes to the PMP exam.

Exam Objectives:
The PMP exam based on PMBOK7 encompasses a range of knowledge areas, process groups, and domains. Here are the key objectives that are covered with killexams Practice Tests:

People: Emphasizes the importance of effective leadership, team building, and communication skills in project management.
Process: Focuses on project management processes and their inter dependencies, including planning, executing, monitoring, controlling, and closing projects.
Business Environment: Covers the external factors that influence projects, such as organizational culture, governance, and compliance.
Strategy: Explores strategic planning and decision-making techniques for successful project outcomes.
Governance: Highlights the need for effective project governance structures and mechanisms to ensure project success.
Data and Analytics: Reflects the growing significance of data-driven decision-making and the use of analytics in project management.

Exam Tips:
Preparing for the PMP exam requires dedication and a systematic approach. Here are some valuable tips to help you succeed:

Use Authentic Study Resources: Rely on a variety of study materials, including the PMBOK7 guide, killexams practice exams, killexams PDF Questions, online test engine and exam simulator. This will provide you with a well-rounded understanding of project management concepts and make your ready to pass the exam.

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Simulate Real Exam Questions: As the PMP exam is time-bound, simulate real exam conditions during your practice sessions. Create a quiet environment, adhere to the time limits, and practice answering questions provided by killexams.com under pressure to enhance your exam readiness.

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The PMP certification is a prestigious credential that demonstrates your competence and expertise in project management. With the introduction of PMBOK7, it is essential for aspiring professionals to align their preparation with the latest industry standards. By understanding the exam objectives, and preparing the exam will killexams pmp exam questions, you can ensure your success in the PMP exam and advance your career in project management. Remember, thorough preparation, practice, and a focused mindset are key to achieving your PMP certification in 2024.

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PMP-2024
Project Management Professional - PMP 2024 (Follows PMBOK 7th)
Question: 992
Which of the following is the primary purpose of a project kick-off meeting?
A. To assign project tasks to team members
B. To introduce the project team to stakeholders
C. To review the project's scope and objectives
D. To establish project communication channels
Answer: B
Explanation: The primary purpose of a project kick-off meeting is to introduce the project team to stakeholders. The kick-off meeting serves as an opportunity to bring together key project team members, stakeholders, and other relevant parties to establish a shared understanding of the project's goals, objectives, and expectations. It provides a platform for project stakeholders to meet and engage with the project team, fostering relationships, building rapport, and aligning everyone towards a common vision. While assigning project tasks, reviewing the project's scope and objectives, and establishing project communication channels may be components of a kick-off meeting, the primary focus is on the introduction and collaboration between the project team and stakeholders.
Question: 993
A project manager is using a network diagram to represent the project's activities and their dependencies. What is the critical path in a network diagram?
A. The sequence of activities that must be completed in the shortest duration.
B. The longest path of activities that determines the project's overall duration.
C. The path of activities with the highest resource requirements.
D. The path of activities with the most dependencies.
Answer: B
Explanation: The critical path in a network diagram is the longest path of activities that determines the project's overall duration. It represents the sequence of activities that, if delayed, would directly impact the project's completion date. Activities on the critical path have zero slack or float, meaning any delay in their completion would result in a delay in the project's completion. The critical path is important for project scheduling and helps identify activities that require close monitoring and management to ensure timely project delivery. The critical path may or may not have the highest resource requirements and the most dependencies.
Question: 994
You are managing a project that involves working with a vendor to deliver a critical component. However, the vendor informs you that they are experiencing unexpected delays in manufacturing the component. What should you do?
A. Accept the delay and inform the project stakeholders about the revised timeline
B. Find an alternative vendor to manufacture the component
C. Negotiate with the vendor to expedite the manufacturing process
D. Assess the impact of the delay on the project schedule and explore mitigation options Answer: D
Explanation: When a vendor experiences unexpecteddelays in manufacturing a critical component for a project, the project manager should assess the impact of the delay on the project schedule and explore mitigation options. Understanding the potential impact of the delay is crucial for making informed decisions and minimizing the project's overall schedule risk. While accepting the delay and informing stakeholders about the revised timeline may be necessary, it is important to first evaluate the consequences and consider possible mitigation strategies. Finding an alternative vendor or negotiating with the current vendor to expedite the manufacturing process can be potential options, but they should be explored after assessing the impact and determining the feasibility of such actions. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate response in this situation.
Question: 995
A project manager is using the earned schedule (ES) technique to assess project performance. What is the primary advantage of using earned schedule over earned value management (EVM)?
A. It provides more accurate cost estimates
B. It includes the effect of schedule performance in addition to cost performance
C. It is easier to calculate and interpret
D. It measures the value of completed work
Answer: B
Explanation: The primary advantage of using earned schedule (ES) over earned value management (EVM) is that ES includes the effect of schedule performance in addition to cost performance. While EVM focuses on measuring the value of completed work based on cost, ES incorporates the concept of time and provides insights into the project's schedule performance. This can help project managers better understand project progress and make informed decisions regarding schedule adjustments.
Question: 996
During the execution of a project, you discover that one of your key stakeholders has ceased supporting the project and is calling for its termination. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take?
A. This information should be given directly to the project sponsor so they can stop this stakeholder from terminating the project.
B. This information is of little value to the project sponsor because they were present in the meeting and should already be aware of the project's status.
C. This information should be analyzed, and its impact should be clearly understood before reporting it to the project sponsor.
D. This information should be shared with the project team at the next team meeting.
Answer: C
Explanation: The most appropriate action in this situation is to analyze the information and gain a clear understanding of its impact before reporting it to the project sponsor. It is important to assess the severity of the stakeholder's decision and evaluate its potential consequences for the project. By analyzing the information, you can provide the project sponsor with a comprehensive report that outlines the implications of the stakeholder's withdrawal and enables informed decision-making. Simply forwarding the information without analysis may not give the project sponsor a complete understanding of the situation.
Question: 997
During the planning phase of a project, the project manager identifies several risks that could impact the project's success. What should the project manager do next to effectively manage these risks?
A. Create a risk register and develop risk response strategies.
B. Communicate the risks to the project team and stakeholders.
C. Monitor the risks throughout the project lifecycle.
D. Implement contingency plans for all identified risks.
Answer: A
Explanation: In order to effectively manage project risks, the project manager should create a risk register, which is a document that lists all identified risks along with their potential impacts and likelihoods. Additionally, the project manager should develop risk response strategies, which are specific actions or plans to address each identified risk. By creating a risk register and developing risk response strategies, the project manager can proactively mitigate and monitor the risks throughout the project lifecycle, increasing the chances of project success.
Question: 998
During the execution phase of your project, your team has been diligently working on the project plan and is now preparing to meet with the customer. What is the primary purpose of this meeting?
A. To review and confirm that all approved project scope has been incorporated
B. To verify that the final product meets the specified quality requirements
C. To conduct testing on the final product
D. To obtain formal acceptance of the deliverables from the customer or sponsor Answer: D
Explanation: The primary purpose of this meeting is to gain formal acceptance of the deliverables from the customer or sponsor. This involves presenting the verified deliverables to the customer and obtaining their formal approval, signifying that the deliverables meet the agreed-upon criteria and are acceptable to the customer. This is an important milestone in the project closure process and ensures that the customer's expectations have been met. Option A is incorrect because reviewing and confirming the approved project scope is typically done during project planning, not during the meeting with the customer. Option B is incorrect because verifying the quality requirements is part of the quality control process and is typically done before the meeting with the customer. Option C is incorrect because testing the final product is part of the quality control process and is typically done before the meeting with the customer.
Question: 999
Which of the following is an input to the Control Communications process?
A. Communication management plan
B. Stakeholder engagement plan
C. Project charter
D. Issue log
Answer: A
Explanation: The communication management plan is an input to the Control Communications process. This process is part of the project communications management knowledge area and focuses on monitoring and controlling the project's communications throughout its lifecycle. The communication management plan provides guidelines and procedures for how communication should be planned, executed, monitored, and controlled within the project. It outlines the communication requirements, stakeholders' information needs, communication methods, and the timing and frequency of communication activities.
Question: 1000
A project manager is leading a project that involves a high degree of uncertainty and complexity. The project team is using an iterative approach to manage the project, with frequent feedback and adaptation. Which project management approach is the team most likely following?
A. Waterfall
B. Agile
C. Lean
D. Six Sigma
Answer: B
Explanation: The project team is most likely following an Agile project management approach. Agile methodologies, such as Scrum or Kanban, are well-suited for projects characterized by high uncertainty and complexity. Agile promotes iterative and incremental development, with frequent feedback and adaptation based on customer or stakeholder input. It emphasizes flexibility, collaboration, and continuous improvement. The Waterfall approach is a sequential and linear methodology that may not be suitable for uncertain and complex projects. Lean and Six Sigma are process improvement methodologies that focus on eliminating waste and reducing defects, respectively, but they may not provide the iterative and adaptive project management approach needed for this scenario.
Question: 1001
Which of the following is a component of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Quality control measurements
B. Project management information system
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Work performance data
Answer: B
Explanation: The Perform Integrated Change Control process is part of the project integration management knowledge area and focuses on reviewing, evaluating, and approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines. A component of this process is the project management information system (option B), which provides tools and techniques for collecting, storing, and disseminating project information. It helps in tracking and managing change requests, documenting decisions, and communicating the impact of changes to stakeholders. Quality control measurements (option A) are used in the Control Quality process. The project schedule network diagram (option C) is a graphical representation of the project's logical relationships between activities and is used in the Develop Schedule process. Work performance data (option D) is generated throughout the project and provides information on the project's progress and performance. Therefore, the appropriate component of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is the project management information system (option B).
Question: 1002
What is the purpose of the "Focus on Benefits and Value" principle in the PRINCE2 methodology?
A. To ensure effective monitoring and control of project activities
B. To align the project with the organization's strategic objectives
C. To optimize the allocation of project resources
D. To maximize the project's social and environmental sustainability
Answer: B
Explanation: The purpose of the "Focus on Benefits and Value" principle in the PRINCE2 methodology is to align the project with the organization's strategic objectives. This principle emphasizes the need to define and maintain a clear business case throughout the project, ensuring that the project's outputs and outcomes contribute to the expected benefits and value for the organization.
Question: 1003
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Project Management Plan
B. Stakeholder Register
C. Project Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Enterprise Environmental Factors
Answer: C
Explanation: The Project Statement of Work (SOW) is an input to the Develop Project Charter process. It provides a narrative description of the project's objectives, deliverables, and high-level requirements.
Question: 1004
A project manager is using the Earned Value Management (EVM) technique to assess project performance. Which of the following EVM metrics indicates the cost efficiency of the project?
A. Cost Performance Index (CPI)
B. Schedule Performance Index (SPI)
C. Estimate to Complete (ETC)
D. Variance at Completion (VAC)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is an Earned Value Management (EVM) metric that indicates the cost efficiency of a project. It is calculated by dividing the earned value (EV) by the actual cost (AC). A CPI value greater than 1 indicates that the project is performing better than planned in terms of cost, while a CPI value less than 1 indicates that the project is over budget. The CPI provides insight into the project's cost performance and can be used to forecast the final cost of the project based on current performance trends.
Question: 1005
In project management, what is the purpose of a lessons learned register?
A. To document the risks identified during the project.
B. To capture and document the knowledge gained from project experiences.
C. To track the progress of project activities and tasks.
D. To record the financial transactions related to the project.
Answer: B
Explanation: The purpose of a lessons learned register is to capture and document the knowledge gained from project experiences. It serves as a repository of valuable insights, best practices, and lessons learned throughout the project lifecycle. By documenting lessons learned, project teams can identify what worked well, what didn't, and make improvements for future projects. It helps to avoid repeating mistakes, leverage successful strategies, and enhance overall project performance and organizational learning.
Question: 1006
Which of the following best describes the purpose of the "Build Incrementally" guiding principle in the PMBOK 7th edition?
A. To establish a governance framework for project decision-making
B. To ensure compliance with project management standards and practices
C. To deliver project value incrementally and iteratively
D. To optimize project scope and minimize change requests
Answer: C
Explanation: The "Build Incrementally" guiding principle in the PMBOK 7th edition focuses on delivering project value incrementally and iteratively. It promotes an iterative approach to project execution, where work is divided into smaller increments or iterations that provide tangible value to stakeholders. This principle aligns with agile methodologies and emphasizes the benefits of early and frequent delivery of project outcomes.
Question: 1007
What is the purpose of a Change Control Board (CCB)?
A. To assess and prioritize project risks
B. To review and approve project changes
C. To manage and resolve project issues
D. To monitor and control project quality
Answer: B
Explanation: The purpose of a Change Control Board (CCB) is to review and approve project changes. It is responsible for evaluating change requests, assessing their impact on the project's objectives, and making decisions on whether to approve or reject the proposed changes.
Question: 1008
A project manager is responsible for managing a project that involves outsourcing certain activities to external vendors. What is the key consideration for effective vendor management in this scenario?
A. Clearly define expectations and requirements in the vendor contracts.
B. Seek the lowest-cost vendors to maximize cost savings.
C. Minimize communication and interactions with vendors to reduce complexity.
D. Rely on the vendors to independently manage their own activities.
Answer: A
Explanation: The key consideration for effective vendor management when outsourcing activities to external vendors is to clearly define expectations and requirements in the vendor contracts. The contracts should outline the scope of work, deliverables, quality standards, timelines, and any other relevant terms and conditions. Clear expectations and requirements set the foundation for successful collaboration and ensure that the vendors understand and meet the project's needs. Seeking the lowest-cost vendors may compromise quality and performance. Minimizing communication and relying solely on the vendors to manage their activities can lead to misalignment and potential issues.
Question: 1009
During the initiation phase of a project, the project sponsor asks the project manager to provide a high-level estimate of the project's duration and cost. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for the project manager to use in this situation?
A. Expert judgment
B. Analogous estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Three-point estimating
Answer: B
Explanation: The most appropriate techniquefor the project manager to use in providing a high-level estimate of the project's duration and cost during the initiation phase is analogous estimating. Analogous estimating is a technique that uses historical data from similar projects as a basis for estimating the duration, effort, or cost of the current project. It relies on the assumption that the current project shares similarities with past projects, and therefore, the historical data can provide a reasonable estimate.
Expert judgment (option A) involves seeking input and insights from subject matter experts to make informed estimates. Parametric estimating (option C) uses statistical relationships between historical data and project variables to calculate estimates. Three-point estimating (option D) involves using optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates to determine a range of possible values.
Question: 1010
What is the purpose of a project quality management plan?
A. To identify and document project risks
B. To monitor and control project quality
C. To determine the project's budget and cost estimates
D. To track and manage project risks
Answer: B Explanation: A project quality management plan describes how quality will be planned, executed, and controlled throughout the project. It outlines the quality objectives, standards, metrics, and processes to ensure that project deliverables meet the required quality criteria.
Question: 1011
During the project initiation phase, the project manager is responsible for developing the project charter. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the project charter?
A. Project objectives
B. Project budget
C. Stakeholder roles and responsibilities
D. Project risks and mitigation strategies
Answer: B
Explanation: The project charter typically includes project objectives, stakeholder roles and responsibilities, and project risks and mitigation strategies. However, the project budget is not typically included in the project charter. The budget is usually developed during the project planning phase, after the project charter has been approved. The project charter serves as a high-level document that outlines the project's purpose, objectives, stakeholders, and key considerations, providing a foundation for the project planning and execution.
Question: 1012
You have just been assigned a software project and are considering adopting the Scrum methodology for delivery. You know the maximum size for a Scrum team is 9 developers, but this project will require at least 3 times that to meet the externally imposed deadline. You discuss this with the Scrum Master, and he suggests that there is a technique to coordinate deliverables across several Agile teams. What did he likely suggest?
A. Flow based agile management
B. Product Backlog controls
C. Monte Carlo controls
D. Scrum of Scrums
Answer: D
Explanation: The Scrum Master likely suggested implementing the "Scrum of Scrums" technique to coordinate deliverables across several Agile teams. Scrum of Scrums is a scaled agile framework that enables coordination and collaboration between multiple Scrum teams working on a large project. It involves representatives from each team meeting regularly to discuss progress, dependencies, and potential issues. This technique allows for effective coordination and integration of work across multiple teams, ensuring that deliverables are aligned and the project progresses smoothly. Flow-based agile management focuses on optimizing workflow and reducing bottlenecks, while Product Backlog controls and Monte Carlo controls are not specific techniques for coordinating deliverables across teams in Scrum.
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